10-04-2016, 06:54 AM
(10-03-2016, 09:15 AM)Warren Dew Wrote:(10-03-2016, 07:02 AM)Odin Wrote: I'm guessing because the Civil War was followed by the Gilded Age and that despite the destruction of the Southern elite it did not result in a significant reduction in inequality, it just shifted a good portion of the wealth from Southern planters to Northern industrialists? Given the various thinking here of a double-saeculum pattern I suspect that Turchin's cycle really is 2 saecula long, and our current time is akin to the Civil War and the next 1T will be akin to the Gilded Age.
At least part of the concentration of wealth prior to the Civil War consisted of concentration of slave ownership. Elimination of slavery resulted in a considerable reduction in concentration of wealth, as you can think of the economics as redistribution of the wealth, not just back to smaller slave owners, but to the ex-slaves themselves.
Was continued concentration of wealth in the North enough to outweigh that? Do you have any figures, preferably with references but without would also be okay, on concentration of wealth in the North before and after the Civil War?
Sorry, no figures, the above was pure speculation on my part.
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