04-18-2019, 08:03 PM
I think a stumbling block for many of us (me especially) is that, because the Republicans are so obviously biased in favor of the wealthy (the only actual policy they pursue anymore is tax cuts) the Democrats must be for everyone else. Obviously, the rich are very influential and will always demand (and get) a party that looks after their economic interests, so it is understandable that they have the GOP as an advocate for their economic interests. The very fact that some 80% of Americans are not either rich (top 1%), affluent (91-99%tile) or upper middle class (81-90%tile) implies that the other party would then look after the interests of this group (lots of votes there).
But the fact is that the top 1% (rich) are pretty much equally split between the two parties (for example, Bill Gates and Warren Buffet, two of very richest Americans, are Democrats). And more people with advanced degrees, who mostly fall above the 80th percentile in income, are Democrats. Why on Earth would these rich people be voting Democrat?
Could if be that the Democrats offer a more moderate version of the economic policy Republicans offer, and that there is NO party that looks out for the economic interests of the bottom 80%? For a brief period between 1935 and 1968 Democrats DID look out for the interests of the bottom 80% of white people (they were considerably less assiduous with black people). When they corrected their racial error, they started to lose some of their bottom 80% (white) support who decided to vote for the Republicans even though they knew they did not look out for their economic interests. It did not happen overnight. Carter was elected with a solid majority in Congress, but with stagflation, high unemployment, flat wages and a white-friendly social message, so-called Reagan Democrats were willing to vote of Reagan. And when inflation and (eventually) unemployment fell a great many of white middle and working class folks began Republicans.
With the bottom 80% split on racial and class (poor vs everyone else) lines the two parties are balanced and politics is based on the struggle for elite support. Hence the basic post-Reagan economic paradigm is not challenged by any party. The other battlefield that can exists is the social one.
But the fact is that the top 1% (rich) are pretty much equally split between the two parties (for example, Bill Gates and Warren Buffet, two of very richest Americans, are Democrats). And more people with advanced degrees, who mostly fall above the 80th percentile in income, are Democrats. Why on Earth would these rich people be voting Democrat?
Could if be that the Democrats offer a more moderate version of the economic policy Republicans offer, and that there is NO party that looks out for the economic interests of the bottom 80%? For a brief period between 1935 and 1968 Democrats DID look out for the interests of the bottom 80% of white people (they were considerably less assiduous with black people). When they corrected their racial error, they started to lose some of their bottom 80% (white) support who decided to vote for the Republicans even though they knew they did not look out for their economic interests. It did not happen overnight. Carter was elected with a solid majority in Congress, but with stagflation, high unemployment, flat wages and a white-friendly social message, so-called Reagan Democrats were willing to vote of Reagan. And when inflation and (eventually) unemployment fell a great many of white middle and working class folks began Republicans.
With the bottom 80% split on racial and class (poor vs everyone else) lines the two parties are balanced and politics is based on the struggle for elite support. Hence the basic post-Reagan economic paradigm is not challenged by any party. The other battlefield that can exists is the social one.